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Ron41228
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Topic: Stated Percentage Rate Depreciation
    Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 12:55pm
Hi,
We are trying to configure ECC 5.0 to use a modified sum of the years digits depreciation in area 01 using "Explicit Percentage Rate Depreciation". 
 
The reason for this is that we need to make subsequent acquisions to the same asset in subsequent years and do not want to use asset sub-numbers and want the new additions to have depreciation caught up into the current period using the original depreciation start date.
 
My questions are?
1) Is this possible using post-capitalizations for the additions?
2) Can an asset have many post-capitalizations (i.e. additions in years 3,4,5 etc.)
3) Do post-capitalizations work on assets that were created from internal order settlements?
 
Any advice would be appreciated or another way that this can be handled.
 
Thanks,
Ron
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Quote Thomas6442 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 1:06pm
Hi Ron,
No need to use stated percentages for that...a post-cap by definition does the catch-up already.
 
But (and this is a big BUT): Posting subsequent additions to the same asset cause significant tax reporting issues because you cannot report these acquisitions by fiscal year anymore using the asset's cap. date...in addition, this can cause significant depreciation acceleration for book purposes, too. I suggest you re-think the sub-number concept.
Hope this helps a bit,
Tom
 
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 1:36pm
Thanks Thomas for the quick response.
 
The reason for the Explicit Percentage Rate Depreciation is that we want to use Sum of the Years Digits Depreciation but that does not allow subsequent year acquisions.  Additionally, we want the additions in subsequent years to catch up depreciation from original depreciation start date in current year so this was a workaround I thought of.  This is for plant depreciation for book purposes only.  The depreciation acceleration is intended. Will using the post caps work in this scenario?
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Quote Thomas6442 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 1:51pm
Yes, in general the post-cap will work for this...just not for SYD depreciation (since the formula uses the original APC to calculate the annual depreciation amounts it is not possible to modify this base value during the life of the asset).
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Ron41228
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 4:48pm
Thanks. Yes, I am aware of this limiitation in SYD depreciation.  That is why I want to use stated percentages instead.
 
Will I have any problems with post-caps working on assets that were created from internal order settlements?  and, if additions are added in subsequent years via IO settlements, can I reclass to a temp account and repost as a post cap using this temp account as the offset?
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Quote Thomas6442 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 5:01pm
Yes, you could do that.. since settlements (from orders or WBS) always come in as an acquisition you woudn't get the catch-up you are looking for...so settling to a temp account and then posting a post-cap against it is a valid work around.
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Ron41228
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Posted: 22 Sep 2009 at 5:18pm
Thank you.  I have been working with fixed assets for a few years now and every once in a while I get a curve ball that I like to bounce off a peer (or in your case the guru's guru) to make sure my logic is correct.
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Posted: 25 Sep 2009 at 7:10am

One more little question on this. 

The asset currently gets value from internal order settlement and if we don't want to change the settlement rule to post to a temporary account and then do the Post-cap but let the Internal order settle to the asset, what is the best way to remove this "new addition" to a temp account from the asset and then repost as a post cap? 
 
A partial retirement with revenue will drag previous depreciation on the asset with it and we only want to reverse this new addition without depreciation yet.  Any ideas on the best way to do this?
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Quote Thomas6442 Replybullet Posted: 30 Sep 2009 at 9:52am
Hi Ron,
I would use a negative acquisition instead of a retirement...they are both CR transactions but obviously, show up on reports differently.
Hope this helps,
Tom
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Ron41228
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Quote Ron41228 Replybullet Posted: 01 Oct 2009 at 6:16am
Thanks Tom. Good idea. 
 
I also thought about just using F-02 and reclassing the asset with a Debit to the suspense account and credit to the asset number.  Then using the suspense account for the post cap offset value.  Then reclassing the remaining "calculated" amount in suspense (after postcap= to Accum. deprec.) to the depreciation expense in the current year to capture the additional depreciation expense this year.
 
Any potential pitfalls to doing this?
 
Thanks,
Ron
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